CCNA1 Final v1(Lastest in Jun 2009)

www.ccna4u.net || www.ccna4u.info || www.ccna4u.org || www.9tut.info

2.
Which three IPv4 addresses represent valid network addresses for a subnet? (Choose three.)

(true answer)=>192.168.9.64/28

192.168.9.146/28

(true answer)=>192.168.9.96/28

192.168.9.129/26

192.168.9.51/26

(true answer)=>192.168.9.64/26



3

Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be determined about the topology? (Choose two.)

(true answer)=>Four collision domains are present.

One logical network is represented.

(true answer)=>Two broadcast domains are present.

Three networks are needed.

Three logical address ranges are required.




4



Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology describes the exhibited network?

star

(true answer)=>ring

point-to-point

multi-access



5


Refer to the exhibit. At which OSI layer is serial interface 0/0/1 experiencing problems?

(true answer)=>Layer 1

Layer 2

Layer 3

Layer 4



6


Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the information that is represented in the header? (Choose two.)

This is a server response.

The UDP protocol is being used.

(true answer)=>The destination port indicates a Telnet session.

(true answer)=>The return segment will contain a source port of 23.

The next session originated from the client of this session will use the source port number 13358.



7


Refer to the exhibit. Host B was powered off. What change will occur in the MAC table of the switch?

The table will remain unaffected.

(true answer)=>The switch will remove the MAC address at Fa0/19.

The switch will retain the MAC address until host B is powered on again.

The switch will rebuild the MAC table by assigning the FFFF.FFFF.FFFF address to port Fa0/19.



8
What information is contained in the header of Layer 3 to help data delivery?

(true answer)=>port number

device physical address

destination host logical address

virtual connection identifier



9


Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the provided configuration, which statement is true?

(true answer)=>The IP address of host A is properly assigned to the local NIC.

Host A can send packets to any host on the local network only.

Host A can send packets to any host on the local and remote network.

Host A can ping successfully the default gateway address of 192.168.1.1.



10
As network administrator, what is the subnet mask that allows 510 hosts given the IP address 172.30.0.0?

255.255.0.0

255.255.248.0

255.255.252.0

(true answer)=>255.255.254.0

255.255.255.0

255.255.255.128



11


Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator remotely accesses the CLI of RouterB from PC1 using a secure connection. Which statement is true about this connection?

The Telnet server process is running on PC1.

Only the exchange of the Telnet username and password is encrypted.

The GET request is sent to RouterA to retrieve data.

(true answer)=>The SSH service is used to connect PC1 to RouterB.



12
A network administrator wants to restrict access to the router privileged EXEC mode. Which password should the administrator use?

(true answer)=>enable

aux

console

VTY



13


Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly describes the purpose for the IP address that is assigned to VLAN 100?

provides remote switch management

(true answer)=>identifies the subnet for hosts in VLAN 100

serves as default gateway to hosts in VLAN 100

creates a routing table entry for packets to network 192.168.0.0



14
Which type of media is immune to EMI and RFI? (Choose two.)

10 Base-T

10 Base-2

10 Base-5

(true answer)=>100 Base-FX

100 Base TX

(true answer)=>1000 Base LX



15
Which device should be used for routing a packet to a remote network?

access switch

DHCP server

hub

(true answer)=>router


16


Refer to the exhibit. To create the initial configuration, a network technician connected host A to the router using the connection that is shown. Which statement is true about this connection?

It terminates at the Ethernet port of the router.

(true answer)=>It provides out-of-band console access.

It terminates at the serial interface of the router.

It requires a Telnet client on host A to access the router.



17
Which three IPv4 addresses represent a broadcast for a subnet? (Choose three.)

(true answer)=>172.16.4.63 /26

172.16.4.129 /26

(true answer)=>172.16.4.191 /26

172.16.4.51 /27

(true answer)=>172.16.4.95 /27

172.16.4.221 /27



18


Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the IP configuration that is shown, what is the reason that Host A and Host B are unable to communicate outside the local network?

Host A was assigned a network address.

Host B was assigned a multicast address.

Host A and Host B belong to different networks.

(true answer)=>The gateway address was assigned a broadcast address.



19
Because of a security violation, the router password must be changed. What information can be learned from these configuration entries? (Choose two.)

Router(config)# line vty 0 4
Router(config-line)# password arj15
Router(config-line)# login

This configuration allows users to connect by using a modem.

Users must specify which line, 0 or 4, they wish to connect to when making a connection.

(true answer)=>This configuration allows users to connect to the router via the use of the telnet command.

(true answer)=>This configuration allows five users to make simultaneous connections to this router.
www.true answer


The configured password is automatically encrypted on the router.


20


Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about e-mail transmission between computer A and the server?

(true answer)=>The server will use HTTP to push messages to computer A.

Computer A will connect to the server and retrieve inbound messages by using POP.

The e-mail client on computer A uses SMTP to pull inbound messages from the server and push outbound messages to the server.

A connection is established from computer A to the server on port 21 and the client software uses FTP to transmit messages as discreet files.



21
Which OSI layer uses a connection-oriented protocol to ensure reliable delivery of data?

application layer

presentation layer

session layer

(true answer)=>transport layer



22


Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to remotely access the CLI of the router from PC1 using modem 1. Which port of the router should be connected to modem 2 to enable this access?

console

Ethernet

(true answer)=>auxiliary

serial



23
In a Cisco IOS device, where is the startup-configuration file stored?

Flash

(true answer)=>NVRAM

RAM

ROM



24
Which statement is true about the running configuration file in a Cisco IOS device?

(true answer)=>It affects the operation of the device immediately when modified.

It is stored in NVRAM.

It should be deleted using the erase running-config command.

It is automatically saved when the router reboots.



25


Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct destination socket number for a web page request from Host A to the web server?

00-08-a3-b6-ce-46

(true answer)=>198.133.219.25:80

http://www.cisco.com

C 198.133.219.0/24 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0



26
A host is transmitting a video over the network. How does the transport layer allow this host to use multiple applications to transmit other data at the same time as the video transmission?

It uses error control mechanisms.

(true answer)=>It uses a connectionless protocol only for multiple simultaneous transmissions.

It uses multiple Layer 2 source addresses.

It uses multiple port numbers.



27


Refer to the exhibit. A router, the table of which is shown, receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.9.4. How will the router treat the packet?

It will drop the packet.

It will forward the packet via FastEthernet 0/1.

(true answer)=>It will forward the packet to the next hop address.

It will forward the packet to 172.16.2.0



28


Refer to the exhibit. The host was disconnected from switch 2 and connected to switch 1. Which combination of IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway should be assigned to this host to allow it to function in the network?

IP address: 10.10.9.37 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35

(true answer)=>IP address: 10.10.9.37 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35

IP address: 10.10.9.29 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35

IP address: 10.10.9.32 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35

IP address: 10.10.9.37 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 196.1.105.6

IP address: 10.10.9.63 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35



29
A user types the enable command. What task can be performed at the privileged EXEC mode?

Configure the device.

Configure individual interfaces.

Configure individual terminal lines.

(true answer)=>Issue show and debug commands.



30
What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)

(true answer)=>It monitors the media for presence of a data signal.

(true answer)=>After detecting a collision, hosts can resume transmission after a random timer has expired.

(true answer)=>A jam signal is used to ensure that all hosts are aware that a collision has occurred.

Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority.

Data is transmitted only when the data signal is present.

It uses a token system to avoid collisions.


31
Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)

(true answer)=>TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.

TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable transportation of IP packets.

UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.

(true answer)=>TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.

TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.



32


Refer to the exhibit. The headers added at each layer are shown. Which layer adds the destination and source process numbers to ensure that data is delivered to the correct application?

physical layer

data link layer

network layer

(true answer)=>transport layer



33


Refer to the exhibit. In a network, Hosts A and B are exchanging segments at the transport layer. Which two statements are true about this exchange? (Choose two.)

Host A is transferring files to host B using FTP.

(true answer)=>Host A will send the next segment containing data for this session starting with byte number 11.

The segment from the destination host indicates that 11 bytes have been received successfully.

(true answer)=>Host A is initiating a Telnet session to host B.

Host B can send the next segment of the data starting with byte number 2.



34
During the encapsulation process of the TCP/IP model, which layer will attach the IP header to the data?

application

transport

(true answer)=>internet

network access



35


Refer to the exhibit. The network containing router B is experiencing problems. A network associate has isolated the issue in this network to router B. What action can be preformed to correct the network issue?

(true answer)=>issue the clock rate command on interface Serial 0/0/0

issue the description command on interface Serial 0/0/1

issue the ip address command on interface FastEthernet 0/0

issue the no shutdown command on interface FastEthernet 0/1



36
During the encapsulation process, what identifiers are added at the transport layer?

source and destination IP addresses

source and destination MAC addresses

source and destination port numbers

source and destination channel identifiers



37


Refer to the exhibit. A network technician wants to connect host A to the console of a Cisco switch to initialize the configuration. What type of cable is required for this connection?

straight-through cable

crossover cable

(true answer)=>rollover cable

serial cable



38
How does the transport layer allow a host to maintain multiple, simultaneous communication streams across different applications?

It uses error control mechanisms.

(true answer)=>It uses a connectionless protocol only for multiple simultaneous transmissions.

It uses multiple Layer 2 source addresses.

It uses multiple ports.



39
While configuring a router, a network technician wants to name the router. Which prompt should the technician see when entering the hostname command?

Router>

Router#

(true answer)=>Router(config)#

Router(config-line)#



40


Refer to the exhibit. The NAT functionality of the router is enabled to provide Internet access to the PC. However, the PC is still unable to access the Internet. Which IP address should be changed to 209.165.201.1 to enable the PC to access the Internet?

192.168.1.191

192.168.1.101

192.168.1.1

(true answer)=>192.168.1.254



41
Which option would be a valid router hostname according to Cisco naming convention guidelines?

Rtr1_Bldg201

(true answer)=>Building_201

Router 1

1st_Floor_Router_409_West_State_Street



42
An administrator has made changes to a device. The changes did not have the desired effect. What can the administrator do to restore the configuration saved in NVRAM?

Issue the erase flash command.

(true answer)=>Issue the reload command and respond no to the prompt that follows.

Issue the erase start-up config command.

Issue the copy running-config start-up config command.



43


Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?

Connection 1 - rollover cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - crossover cable

Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - crossover cable Connection 3 - rollover cable

Connection 1 - crossover cable Connection 2 - rollover cable Connection 3 - straight-through cable

Connection 1 - crossover cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - rollover cable

(true answer)=>Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - straight-through cable



44


Refer to the exhibit. Host A wants to access the Internet. Which combination of a Layer 2 address and a Layer 3 address will enable this access from host A?

Destination MAC: 0030.8596.DE83 Default gateway: 209.165.202.130

Destination MAC: 0030.8596.DE82 Default gateway: 172.16.9.2

(true answer)=>Destination MAC: 0030.8517.44C4 Default gateway: 172.16.1.1

Destination MAC: 0030.8517.44C4 Default gateway: 209.165.202.130



45


Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and cable 2 have the ends wired for specific physical layer requirements. The table lists each segment by number and the cable which has been installed by the network technician between the network components on that segment. From the data given, which segments have the correct cable installed? (Choose three.)

(true answer)=>segment1

segment2

(true answer)=>segment3

(true answer)=>segment4

segment5


46


Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology describes the exhibited network?

star

(true answer)=>ring

point-to-point

multi-access



47


Refer to the exhibit. The PC, the routing table of which is displayed, is configured correctly. To which network device or interface does the IP address 192.168.1.254 belong?

PC

switch

(true answer)=>router interface fa0/0

router interface fa0/1



48


Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator uses the netstat command to display the open, active, and running TCP connections on a networked host. The exhibit displays the output of this command. Which two facts can be determined from this output for accessing www.cisco.com? (Choose two.)

The source port indicates that the session is an http session.

The connection is not successful.

(true answer)=>The source port of the host is 3166.

(true answer)=>The destination port is 80.

The source port does not support communication with the destination port that is listed.

The source port indicates that a UDP session has been initiated.



49
The network administrator wants to configure the port number used by an application on a server to make it accessible by clients. Which range of port numbers would normally be assigned for this application?

0 to 255

(true answer)=>0 to 1023

1024 to 49151

49152 to 65535



50


Refer to the exhibit. A user wants to view the current configuration. The output of the ipconfig/all command is displayed in the exhibit. What three facts can be determined from the output? (Choose three.)

The IP address is obtained from the DHCP server.

(true answer)=>This PC cannot communicate with other networks.

(true answer)=>The network can have 14 hosts.

The prefix of the computer address is /25.

The IP address is routable on the Internet.

The assigned address is a private address.



51


Refer to the exhibit. What is required on host A for a network technician to create the initial configuration on Router1?

an FTP client

a Telnet client

(true answer)=>a terminal emulation program

a web browser

CCNA 2 FINAL (New New New)

www.ccna4u.net || www.ccna4u.info || www.ccna4u.org || www.9tut.info

1. Refer to the exhibit. The output of the show ip route command for three routers on a network is displayed. All routers are operational, pings are not blocked on this network, and no default routes are installed. Which two pings will fail? (Choose two.)
from R1 to 172.16.1.1
** from R1 to 192.168.3.1
from R2 to 192.168.1.1
from R2 to 192.168.3.1
** from R3 to 192.168.1.1
172.16.4.0/24

2. A router that uses the RIP routing protocol has an entry for a network in the routing table. It then receives an update with another entry for the same destination network but with a lower hop count. What action will the router take for this new update?
** It will append the update information to the routing table.
It will invalidate the entry for that network in the routing table.
It will replace the existing routing table entry with the new information.
It will ignore the new update.
3. Which two statements are true for OSPF Hello packets? (Choose two.)
They negotiate correct parameters among neighboring interfaces.
They are used for dynamic neighbor discovery.
They use timers to elect the designated router with the fastest link.
** They are received from all routers on the network and used to determine the complete network topology.
** They are used to maintain neighbor relationships.

4. A network administrator needs to configure a single router to loadbalance the traffic over unequal cost paths. Which routing protocol should the administrator use?
EIGRP
OSPF
RIPv1
** RIPv2
5. Which two statements are correct about the split horizon with poison reverse method of routing loop prevention? (Choose two.)
It is enabled by default on all Cisco IOS implementations.
** It assigns a value that represents an infinite metric to the poisoned route.
** It sends back the poisoned route update to the same interface from where it was received.
It instructs routers to hold all changes that might affect routes, for a specified period of time.
It limits the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it is discarded.
6. Refer to the exhibit. The show cdp neighbors command was run on one of the devices as shown. Based on this information, which two facts can be determined? (Choose two.)
** The command was run on the router.
ABCD is a non CISCO device.
Layer 3 connectivity between two devices exists.
ABCD supports routing capability.
** ABCD is connected to the Fa0/0 interface of the neighboring device.
7. Refer to the exhibit. The network has three connected routers: R1, R2 and R3. The routes of all three routers are displayed. What can be verified from the output?
R1 and R3 are connected to each other via the S0/0/0 interface.
The IP address of the S0/0/0 interface of R1 is 10.1.1.2.
The IP address of the S0/0/1 interface of R2 is 10.3.3.2.
** R2 is connected to the S0/0/1 interface of R3.
8. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1? (Choose three.)
The route to network 172.16.0.0 has an AD of 156160.
Network 192.168.0.16 can best be reached using FastEthernet0/0.
**The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default value.
** Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process.
Network 172.17.0.0 can only be reached using a default route.
** No default route has been configured.
9. Refer to the exhibit. All the routers are properly configured to use the RIP routing protocol with default settings, and the network is fully converged. Router A is forwarding data to router E. Which statement is true about the routing path?
Router A will send the data via the ADE path that is listed in the routing table.
Router A will loadbalance the traffic between ABE and ACE.
** Router A will determine that all paths have equal metric cost.
Router A will send the data through ADE and keep ABE and ACE as the backup paths.
10. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has run the following command on R1.
R1# ip route 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.2What is the result of running this command?
** Traffic for network 192.168.2.0 is forwarded to 172.16.1.2.
This route is automatically propagated throughout the entire network.
Traffic for all networks is forwarded to 172.16.1.2.
The command invokes a dynamic routing protocol for 192.168.2.0.
11. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is planning IP addressing of a new network. What part of this addressing scheme must be changed to allow communication between host A and the server?
** the IP address of the server
the default gateway of host A
the IP address of host A
the default gateway of the server
12. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured OSPF using the following command:
network 192.168.1.32 0.0.0.31 area 0
Which router interface will participate in OSPF?
FastEthernet 0/0
FastEthernet 0/1
** Serial 0/0/0
Serial 0/0/1
13. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured to run RIPv1 and are fully converged. Which routing updates will be received by R3?
updates for 192.168.1.0/24 and 192.168.2.0/24
updates for 172.16.2.0/24 and 172.16.3.0/24
** updates for 172.16.1.0/24, 172.16.2.0/24 and 172.16.3.0/24
updates for 172.16.0.0/16
14. Refer to the exhibit. Both routers are using the RIP protocol. Devices on the 192.168.1.1 network can ping the S0/0/0 interface on R2 but cannot ping devices on the 192.168.2.1 network. What is a possible cause of this problem?
** The routers are configured with different versions of RIP.
R2 is not forwarding the routing updates.
The R1 configuration should include the no autosummary command.
The maximum path number has been exceeded.
15. When a router boots, what is the default order to locate the Cisco IOS if there is no boot system command?
ROM, TFTP server, flash
flash, TFTP server, RAM
** flash, NVRAM, TFTP server
ROM, flash, TFTP server
16. Refer to the exhibit. Which router is advertising subnet 172.16.1.32/28?
Router1
Router2
Router3
** Router4
17. Which mechanism helps to avoid routing loops by advertising a metric of infinity?
** route poisoning
split horizon
holddown timer
triggered updates
18. Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 120?
It is the metric that is calculated by the routing protocol.
It is the value that is used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the bandwidth for the link.
** It is the administrative distance of the routing protocol.
It is the holddown time, measured in seconds, before the next update.
19. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator successfully pings R1 from R3. Next, the administrator runs the show cdp neighbors command on R3. The output of this command is displayed.What are two reasons for the absence of R1 in the output? (Choose two.)
There is a Layer 2 connectivity problem between R1 and R3.
The Fa0/0 interface of R1 is configured with an incorrect IP address.
**The no cdp run command has been run at R1.
**The no cdp enable command has been run at Fa0/1 interface of R3.R1 is powered off.
20. Refer to the exhibit. A device is required to complete the connection between router R1 and the WAN. Which two devices can be used for this? (Choose two.)
** a CSU/DSU device
** a modem
an Ethernet switch
a hub
a bridge
21. In a complex lab test environment, a router has discovered four paths to 192.168.1.0/24 via the use of the RIP routing process. Which route will be installed in the routing table after the discovery of all four paths?
R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/3] via 192.168.110.1, 00:00:17, Serial 0/1/0
R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:17, Serial 0/0/0
** R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.100.1, 00:00:17, Serial 0/0/1
R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/4] via 192.168.101.1, 00:00:17, Serial 0/1/1
22. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator accesses router R1 from the console port to configure a newly connected interface. What passwords will the network administrator need to enter to make the connection and the necessary configuration changes?
the Cisco123 password only
the Cisco789 password only
the Cisco001 password only
** the Cisco001 password and the Cisco789 passwords
the Cisco001 password and the Cisco123 passwords
23. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator adds this command to router R1: ip route 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 S0/0/0. What is the result of adding this command?
This route is automatically propagated throughout the network.
The traffic for network 172.16.1.0 is forwarded to network 192.168.2.0.
** A static route is established.
The traffic for all Class C networks is forwarded to 172.16.1.2.
24. Refer to the exhibit. The router receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.5.79. How will the router handle this packet?
It will forward the packet via the Serial0/0/1 interface.
It will forward the packet via the FastEthernet0/0 interface.
It will forward the packet via the Serial0/0/0 interface.
** It will drop the packet.
25. Which two statements are true about classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
** They can be used for discontiguous subnets.
** They can forward supernet routes in routing updates.
They cannot implement classful routes in routing tables.
They use only a hop count metric.
They do not include the subnet mask in routing updates.
26. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are child routes?
1
3
** 4
6
27. A router has EIGRP configured as the only routing protocol. In what two ways does EIGRP respond if there is no feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route fails? (Choose two.)
It broadcasts hello packets to all routers in the network to reestablish neighbor adjacencies.
** It sends queries to adjacent neighbors until a new successor route is found.
It immediately sends its entire routing table to its neighbors.
It sends queries to adjacent neighbors until the lost route is unknown to the neighbors.
** It automatically forwards traffic to a fallback default route until a successor route is found.
28. Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
** 10.0.0.0/8
64.100.0.0/16
128.107.0.0/16
172.16.40.0/24
192.168.1.0/24
** 192.168.2.0/24
29. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true based on the exhibited output? (Choose two.)
The administrative distance of EIGRP has been set to 50.
** All routes are stable.
** The show ip eigrp topology command has been run on R1.
The serial interface between the two routers is down.
Each route has one feasible successor.
30. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are properly configured with default configurations and are running the OSPF routing protocol. The network is fully converged. A host on the 192.168.3.0/24 network is communicating with a host on the 192.168.2.0/24 network. Which path will be used to transmit the data?
The data will be transmitted via R3-R2.
** The data will be transmitted via R3-R1-R2.
The traffic will be loadbalanced between two paths — one via R3-R2, and the other via R3-R1-R2.
The data will be transmitted via R3-R2, and the other path via R3-R1-R2 will be retained as the backup path.
31. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?
** A(config)# router rip
A(configrouter)# passiveinterface S0/0
B(config)# router rip
B(configrouter)# network 192.168.25.48
B(configrouter)# network 192.168.25.64
A(config)# router rip
A(configrouter)# no network 192.168.25.32
B(config)# router rip
B(configrouter)# passiveinterface S0/0
A(config)# no router rip
32. Refer to the exhibit. The hosts on the R1 LAN are unable to access the Internet. What is incorrectly configured?
the IP address of the Fa 0/0 interface at R1
the IP address of the S 0/0/1 interface at R2
** the IP address of the S 0/0/0 interface at R1
the subnet mask of the S 0/0/1 interface at R2
33. Refer to the exhibit. A ping from R1 to 10.1.1.2 is successful, but a ping from R1 to 192.168.2.0 fails. What is the cause of this problem?
There is no gateway of last resort at R1.
The serial interface between the two routers is down.
** A default route is not configured on R1.
The static route for 192.168.2.0 is incorrectly configured.
34. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has run the show ip protocol command on R1. What can be determined from the exhibited output?
The router is using RIPv2.
The router is not forwarding routing updates.
The router is receiving updates for both versions of RIP.
** The FastEthernet0/0 interface is down.
35. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured to use the EIGRP routing protocol with default settings, all routes are advertised on all routers, and the network is fully converged. Which path will the data take to travel between 172.16.1.0/24 and 192.168.100.0/24?
It will travel via A, B, and C.
** It will travel via A, F, E, D, and C.
It will travel via A, G, H, and C.
The traffic will be loadbalanced on all paths.
36. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured for OSPF area 0. The network administrator requires that R2 always be the DR and maintain adjacency.Which two configurations can achieve this? (Choose two.)
Change the OSPF area of R2 to a higher value.
Change the router ID for R2 by assigning the IP address 172.16.30.5/24 to the Fa0/0 interface.
** Change the priority values of the Fa0/0 interfaces of R1 and R3 to 0.
** Configure a loopback interface on R2, with an IP address higher than any IPaddress on the other routers.
Configure R1 and R3 with an IP address whose value is higher than that of R2.
37. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is unable to access the Internet, and troubleshooting has revealed that this is due to an addressing problem. What is incorrectly configured in this network?
the IP address of the Fa 0/0 interface of R1
the subnet mask of the S 0/0/0 interface of R1
** the IP address of the S 0/0/0 interface of R1
the subnet mask of the S0/0/0 interface of R2
38. Refer to the exhibit. All routes are advertised and fully operational on all routers. Which statement is true about the path that the data will take from router A to router B?
** If EIGRP is used with default configurations, the data will be equally distributed between two paths — A, D, B and A, C, D.
If RIPv1 is used with default configurations, the data will be loadbalanced on all paths.
If EIGRP and OSPF are both used with default configurations, the data will be sent through paths learned by the OSPF protocol.
If RIPv2 is used with default configurations, the data will be equally distributed between two paths — A, D, B and A, C, D.
39. Refer to the exhibit. The interfaces of all routers are configured for OSPF area 0. R3 can ping R1, but the two routers are unable to establish a neighbor adjacency. What should the network administrator do to troubleshoot this problem?
Check if the interfaces of the routers are enabled.
** Check the hello and dead intervals between the routers.
Check the process ID of both routers.
Check if CDP is enabled on all the routers.
40. Refer to the exhibit. What information can be determined from the highlighted output?
R1 is originating the route 172.30.200.32/28.
** Automatic summarization is disabled.
The 172.30.200.16/28 network is one hop away from R1.
A classful routing protocol is being used.
41. Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose two.)
DRAM loads the bootstrap
RAM stores the operating system
Flash executes diagnostics at bootup
** NVRAM stores the configuration file
ROM stores the backup configuration file
** POST runs diagnostics on hardware modules
42. Which routing protocol by default uses bandwidth and delay to calculate the metric of a route?
RIPv1
RIPv2
OSPF
** EIGRP
43. Two routers need to be configured within a single OSPF area. Which two components need to be configured on both routers to achieve this? (Choose two.)
the same process ID
** the same area ID
** network addresses and wildcard masks
the same router ID
the same loop back address
44. Refer to the exhibit. The networks that are connected to R1 have been summarized for R2 as 192.168.136.0/21. Which packet destination address will R2 forward to R1?
192.168.135.1
**192.168.142.1
192.168.144.1
192.168.128.1
45. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is running RIP with default parameters. R1 has learned four different paths with the same metrics to network 192.168.6.0. Which path or paths will R1 use to forward a packet that is destined to 192.168.6.10?
** the first path that the router learned.
only the first two of the four paths that the router learned.
the last path that the router learned.
all four paths.
46. What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)
** It connects multiple IP networks.
It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses.
** It determines the best path to send packets.
It manages the VLAN database.
It increases the size of the broadcast domain.
47. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the routing process for this network?
A packet leaves interface Fa0/0 of R1 with the source MAC address as 000C.3010.9260.
** The packet leaves interface Fa0/0 of R1 with the source MAC address as 000C.3010.9260.
The no shutdown command needs to run on the Fa0/0 interface of R1.
The Fa0/0 interface of R2 could be configured with the IP address 172.16.4.1/24.
48. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has run the show interface command. The output of this command is displayed. What is the first step that is required to make this interface operational?
Switch the cable with a known working cable.
** Issue the no shutdown command on the interface.
Configure the interface as a loopback interface.
Set the encapsulation for the interface.
49. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured properly for a single area OSPF, and R2 has been recently installed in the network. Which set of commands is required to configure a single area OSPF for the networks that are connected to R2?
** R2(config)# router ospf 1
R2(configrouter)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
R2(configrouter)# network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
R2(config)# router ospf 1
R2(configrouter)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
R2(config)# router ospf 2
R2(configrouter)# network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
R2(config)# router ospf 1
R2(configrouter)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
R2(configrouter)# network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 1
R2(config)# router ospf 1
R2(configrouter)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
R2(configrouter)# network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 1
50. Refer to the exhibit. The command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/0 is run on router R2. What are the two results of this command? (Choose two.)
** A static route will be updated in the routing table.
The traffic from the Internet will be directed to R2.
The traffic from the source network 172.16.0.0/22 will be blocked.
** The route will be specified as the default route for all networks not defined in the routing table.
All the broadcasts will be forwarded via the S0/0/0 interface of R2.
51. Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and deencapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.)
** The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one.
The router changes the source IP to the IP of the exit interface.
** The router maintains the same source and destination IP.
** The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface.
The router changes the destination IP to the IP of the exit interface.
The router sends the packet out all other interfaces, besides the one it entered the router on.
52. What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)
The routers must elect a designated router.
** The routers must agree on the network type.
** The routers must use the same dead interval.
The routers must exchange link state requests.
The routers must exchange database description packets.
53. Refer to the exhibit. Although both the routers can ping the serial interface of their neighbors, they are unable to ping the Ethernet interfaces of other routers. Which two statements are true for this network? (Choose two.)
The administrative distance has been set to 50 on both routers.
** R2 is learning about network 192.168.1.0.
R1 is learning about network 192.168.2.0.
The network 10.1.1.0 command has not been run on both routers.
** Autosummarization is enabled on both routers.
54. Which two situations require the use of a linkstate protocol? (Choose two.)
** Fast convergence of the network is critical.
** The network is very large.
The network administrator has limited knowledge to configure and troubleshoot routing protocols.The network is a flat network.
The capacity of the router is low.
55. Refer to the exhibit. What information can be determined from the displayed output?
EIGRP packets are waiting to be sent to the neighbors.
The adjacencies between the routers are yet to be established.
The IP address 192.168.10.10 is configured at serial interface S0/0/1 of router R2.
** Router R2 is receiving hello packets from a neighbor with the IP address 192.168.10.10 via the R2 S0/0/1 interface.
56. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 is unable to access the Internet. What is the cause of the problem?
An incorrect IP address is configured between the two routers.
No static route is configured on Router2.
** A routing loop has occurred.
No routing protocol is configured on either of the two routers.
57. Refer to the exhibit. What summarization should R2 use to advertise its LAN networks to R1?
172.16.0.0/24
** 172.16.4.0/22
172.16.4.0/23

CCNA 2 – Final 94,8% – New

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1. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running the same routing protocol. Based on the exhibit and its displayed commands, which statement is true?
-The link to the ISP is not advertised by the routing protocol process.

2. Refer to the exhibit. While trying to diagnose a routing problem in the network, the network administrator runs the debug ip rip command. What can be determined from the output of this command?
The router will be unable to ping 192.168.1.2.

3. Refer to the exhibit. Two routers are unable to establish an adjacency. What is the possible cause for this?
The hello and dead intervals are different on the two routers.

4. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are directly connected via their serial interfaces and are both running the EIGRP routing protocol. R1 and R2 can ping the directly connected serial interface of their neighbor, but they cannot form an EIGRP neighbor adjacency.
Configure both routers with the same EIGRP process ID.

5. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R3 use different routing protocols with default administrative distance values. All devices are properly configured and the destination network is advertised by both protocols.
Which path will be used to transmit the data packets from PC1 to PC2?
-The packets will travel via R2-R1.

6. Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 2?
It is the number of hops between R2 and the 192.168.8.0/24 network.

7. What is the function of the OSPF LSR packet?
ans:
It is used by the receiving routers to request more information about any entry in the DBD.

8. Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.)

The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one.
The router maintains the same source and destination IP.
The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface.

9. Refer to the exhibit. The routers are properly configured using a dynamic routing protocol with default settings, and the network is fully converged. Router A is forwarding data to router E. Which statement is true about the routing path?

If the network uses the RIP protocol, router A will determine that all paths have equal cost.

10. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has run the show interface command. The output of this command is displayed. What is the first step that is required to make this interface operational?

Issue the no shutdown command on the interface.

11. Refer to the exhibit. Both routers are using the RIPv2 routing protocol and static routes are undefined. R1 can ping 192.168.2.1 and 10.1.1.2, but is unable to ping 192.168.4.1.
What is the reason for the ping failure?

The 192.168.4.0 network is not included in the RIP configuration of R2.

12. Refer to the exhibit. R2 is configured correctly. The network administrator has configured R1 as shown. Which two facts are true about the forwarding of route information by R1? (Choose two.)
R1 will forward the route information for subnet 192.168.100.0/30.
R1 will forward the route information with an administrative distance set to 50.

13. Refer to the exhibit. The network has three connected routers: R1, R2, and R3. The routes of all three routers are displayed. All routers are operational and pings are not blocked on this network. Which ping will fail?
from R1 to 192.168.3.1

14. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured R1 as shown, and all interfaces are functioning correctly. A ping from R1 to 172.16.1.1 fails. What could be the cause of this problem?
The default route is configured incorrectly.

15. Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose two.)
NVRAM – stores the configuration file
POST – runs diagnostics on hardware modules

16. A network administrator uses the RIP routing protocol to implement routing within an autonomous system. What are two characteristics of this protocol? (Choose two.):
It uses the Bellman-Ford algorithm to determine the best path.
It periodically sends complete routing tables to all connected devices.

17. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is unable to access the Internet. What is the reason for this?
-The Fa0/1 interfaces of the two routers are configured for different subnets.

18. Refer to the exhibit. All interfaces are addressed and functioning correctly. The network administrator runs the tracert command on host A. Which two facts could be responsible for the output of this command? (Choose two.)

The entry for 192.168.2.0/24 is missing from the routing table of R1.
The entry for 192.168.2.0/24 is missing from the routing table of R2.

19. What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)

It forwards data packets toward their destination.
It acts as an intersection between multiple IP networks.

20. Which statement is true about the RIPv1 protocol?
It excludes subnet information from the routing updates.

21. Refer to the exhibit. To implement the RIPv2 protocol, the network administrator runs the commands as displayed. However, the show ip protocol command fails to display any output. How can the administrator solve the problem that is indicated by the lack of output from this command?
Specify the network for which RIP routing has to be enabled.

22. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is adding a new subnet of 50 hosts to R3. Which subnet address should be used for the new subnet that provides enough addresses while wasting a minimum of addresses?
192.168.1.64/26

23. Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are unable to establish an adjacency. What two configuration changes will correct the problem? (Choose two.)
Configure the routers in the same area.
Match the hello and dead timers on both routers.

24. What two routing protocols use a hierarchal network topology? (Choose two.)
IS-IS
OSPF

25. Refer to the exhibit. Router R2 is configured properly and all interfaces are functional. Router R1 has been installed recently. Host A is unable to ping host B.
Which procedure can resolve this problem?
Configure a static route on R1 using the IP address of S0/0/0 on R2.

26. All routers in a network are configured in a single OSPF area with the same priority value. No loopback interface has been set on any of the routers. Which secondary value will the routers use to determine the router ID?
The highest IP address among the active interfaces will be used.

27. Which two statements are true for link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
Routers that run a link-state protocol can establish a complete topology of the network.
The shortest path first algorithm is used.

28. A router boots and enters setup mode. What is the reason for this?
The configuration file is missing from NVRAM.

29. Refer to the exhibit. The show cdp neighbors command was run at R1. Which two facts about the newly detected device can be determined from the output? (Choose two.)
ABCD is a router that is connected to R1.
The device is connected at the Serial0/0/1 interface of R1.

30. What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)
The routers must agree on the network type.
The routers must use the same dead interval.

31. Refer to the exhibit. A ping between host A and host B is successful, but pings from host A to operational hosts on the Internet fail. What is the reason for this problem?
One of the default routes is configured incorrectly.

32. What two routing protocols will produce a shortest path first tree? (Choose two.)
IS-IS
OSPF

33. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1? (Choose three.)
The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default value.
Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process.
No default route has been configured.

34. Refer to the exhibit. What action will R2 take for a packet that is destined for 192.168.2.0?
It will forward the packet to R1.

35. Refer to the exhibit. A router learns a route to the 192.168.6.0 network, as shown in the output of the show ip rip database command. However, upon running the show ip route command, the network administrator sees that the router has installed a different route to the 192.168.6.0 network learned via EIGRP. What could be the reason for the missing RIP route?
Compared to RIP, EIGRP has a lower administrative distance.

36. Which two components are used to determine the router ID in the configuration of the OSPF routing process? (Choose two.)
ans:
the highest IP address of any logical interface
the highest IP address of any physical interface

37. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is accessing router R1 from the console port. Once the administrator is connected to the router, which password should the administrator enter at the R1> prompt to access the privileged EXEC mode?
ans:
Cisco789

38. Which routing protocol maintains a topology table separate from the routing table?
ans:
EIGRP

39. Refer to the exhibit. Which summarization should R1 use to advertise its networks to R2?
ans:
192.168.0.0/22

40. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIPv1. The two networks 10.1.1.0/29 and 10.1.1.16/29 are unable to access each other. What can be the cause of this problem?
ans:
RIPv1 does not support discontiguous networks.

41. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are properly configured to use the EIGRP routing protocol with default settings, and the network is fully converged. Which statement correctly describes the path that the traffic will use from the 10.1.1.0/24 network to the 10.1.2.0/24 network?
ans:
The traffic will be load-balanced between A-B-D and A-C-D.

42. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?
ans:
B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0

43. Which two statements are correct about the split horizon with poison reverse method of routing loop prevention? (Choose two.)
ans:
It assigns a value that represents an infinite metric to the poisoned route.
It sends back the poisoned route update to the same interface from where it was received.

44. Refer to the exhibit. The 10.4.0.0 network fails. What mechanism prevents R2 from receiving false update information regarding the 10.4.0.0 network?
ans:
split horizon

45. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are ultimate routes?
ans:
5

46. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true based on the exhibited output? (Choose two.)
ans:
All routes are stable.
The show ip eigrp topology command has been run on R1.

47. A router has learned two equal cost paths to a remote network via the EIGRP and RIP protocols. Both protocols are using their default configurations. Which path to the remote network will be installed in the routing table?
ans:
the path learned via EIGRP

48. Which two statements are true about the EIGRP successor route? (Choose two.)
ans:
It may be backed up by a feasible successor route.
It is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to the destination.

49. Refer to the exhibit. The output of the show ip route command for router R1 is displayed. What action will the router take for a packet that is destined for 192.168.1.5?
ans:
It will forward the packet to the default gateway.

50. Refer to the exhibit. The hosts that are connected to R2 are unable to ping the hosts that are connected to R1. How can this problem be resolved?
ans:
Configure the R2 router interfaces for area 0.

51. In a lab test environment, a router has learned about network 172.16.1.0 through four different dynamic routing processes. Which route will be used to reach this network?
ans:
D 172.16.1.0/24 [90/2195456] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:09, Serial0/0/0

52. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be derived from this output? (Choose two.)
ans:
Three network devices are directly connected to Router2.
The serial interface between Router2 and Router3 is up.

53. How does route poisoning prevent routing loops?
ans:
Failed routes are advertised with a metric of infinity.

54. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator wants to reduce the size of the routing table of R1. Which partial routing table entry in R1 represents the route summary for R2, without including any additional subnets?
ans:
10.0.0.0/22 is subnetted, 1 subnets
D 10.5.0.0[90/205901] via 192.168.1.2, S0/0/0

55. Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
ans:
10.0.0.0/8
192.168.2.0/24

56. Refer to the exhibit. Although R2 is configured correctly, host A is unable to access the Internet. What are two static routes that can be configured on R1, either of which would enable Internet connectivity for host A? (Choose two.)
ans:
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 Fa0/1
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.2

57. Refer to the exhibit. Which router is advertising subnet 172.16.1.32/28?
ans:
Router4

58. Which statement is true about the metrics used by routing protocols?
ans:
A metric is a value used by a particular routing protocol to compare paths to remote networks.

59. Refer to the exhibit. Which two components are required to complete the configuration? (Choose two.)
ans:
a DTE device
a V.35 cable

CCNA 1 Final Exam 640 - 802

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This Test is 85% Correct

1. A PC can not connect to any remote websites, ping its default gateway, or ping a printer that is functioning properly on the local network segment. Which action will verify that the TCP/IP stack is functioning correctly on this PC?

--> Use the ping 127.0.0.1 command at the command prompt.


2. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only intermediary devices?

--> A, B, D, G

3. Refer to the exhibit. When computer A sends a frame to computer D, what computers receive the frame?

--> only computer D






4. Which password is automatically encrypted when it is created?

--> enable secret

5. Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)

--> TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.

--> TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.

--> TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.


6. Which type of media is immune to EMI and RFI? (Choose two.)

--> 100 Base-FX

--> 1000 Base LX


7. Refer to the exhibit. A technician is working on a network problem that requires verification of the router LAN interface. What address should be pinged from this host to confirm that the router interface is operational?

--> 192.168.254.1


8. Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending email between clients.
Select the list below that correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram.

--> 1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA

9. Refer to the exhibit. What function does router RT_A need to provide to allow Internet access for hosts in this network?

--> address translation

10. Refer to the exhibit. The network containing router B is experiencing problems. A network associate has isolated the issue in this network to router B? What action can be preformed to correct the network issue?

--> issue the no shutdown command on interface FastEthernet 0/1


11. Which three IPv4 addresses represent a broadcast for a subnet? (Choose three.)

--> 172.16.4.63 /26

--> 172.16.4.191 /26

--> 172.16.4.95 /27


12. What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)

--> A device listens and waits until the media is not busy before transmitting.

--> All of the devices on a segment see data that passes on the network medium.

--> After detecting a collision, hosts can attempt to resume transmission after a random time delay has expired.

13. In a Cisco IOS device, where is the startup-configuration file stored?

--> NVRAM

14. A routing issue has occurred in you internetwork. Which of the following type of devices should be examined to isolate this error?

--> router


15. Which OSI layer protocol does IP rely on to determine whether packets have been lost and to request retransmission?

--> transport


16. Due to a security violation, the router passwords must be changed. What information can be learned from the following configuration entries? (Choose two.)

--> The entries specify four Telnet lines for remote access.
The entries set the console and Telnet password to "c13c0".
Telnet access will be denied because the Telnet configuration is incomplete.
--> Access will be permitted for Telnet using "c13c0" as the password.

17. Which prompt represents the appropriate mode used for the copy running-config startup-config command ?

--> Switch-6J#


18. Which combination of network id and subnet mask correctly identifies all IP addresses from 172.16.128.0 through 172.16.159.255?

--> 172.16.128.0 255.255.224.0

19. When must a router serial interface be configured with the clock rate command?

--> when the interface is functioning as a DCE device

20. When connectionless protocols are implemented at the lower layers of the OSI model, what are usually used to acknowledge the data receipt and request the retransmission of missing data?

--> upper-layer connection-oriented protocols


21. A technician is asked to secure the privileged EXEC mode of a switch by requiring a password. Which type of password would require this login and be considered the most
secure?

--> enable secret


22. Refer to the exhibit. What is required on host A for a network technician to create the initial configuration on RouterA?

--> a terminal emulation program


23. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator remotely accesses the CLI of RouterB from PC1. Which two statements are true about the application layer protocol that is used to make this connection? (Choose two.)

-->The connection type is called a VTY session.

--> The application name is the same for the service, protocol, and client.


24. The Layer 4 header contains which type of information to aid in the delivery of data?

--> service port number


25. Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined about the exhibited topology? (Choose two.)

--> A single broadcast domain is present

--> Five collision domains exist.


26. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is trying to determine the correct IP address configuration for Host A. What is a valid configuration for Host A?

--> IP address: 192.168.100.20; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.17


27. Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and cable 2 have the ends wired for specific physical layer requirements. The table lists each segment by number and the cable which has been installed by the network technician between the network components on that segment. From the data
given, which segments have the correct cable installed? (Choose three.)


--> segment1

--> segment3

--> segment4


28. What is true regarding network layer addressing? (Choose three.)

--> uses a flat structure

--> uniquely identifies each host

--> contains a network portion


29. Refer to the exhibit. A router, whose table is shown, receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.1.4. How will router treat the packet?


--> The packet will be forwarded to the destination host.



30. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the information that is represented in the header? (Choose two.)


--> The destination port indicates a Telnet session.

--> The return segment will contain a source port of 23.



31. Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct destination socket number for a web page request from Host A to the web server?


--> 198.133.219.25:80
http://www.cisco.com


32. During the encapsulation process, which identifiers are added at the transport layer?


--> two applications communicating the data



33. Refer to the exhibit. A student has wired each end of a CAT 5e cable as shown. What is the result? (Choose two.)


--> The cable is suitable for use as a Fast Ethernet crossover.

--> The cable is suitable for use between two 100 Mbps Auto-MDIX capable switches.


34. Refer to the exhibit. Assume all devices are using default configurations. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?


--> 3



35. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the IP configuration that is shown, what is the reason that Host A and Host B are unable to communicate outside the local network?


--> The gateway address was assigned a broadcast address.



36. Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?

--> Connection 1 - straight-through cable , Connection 2 - crossover cable , Connection 3 - straight-through cable



37. Refer to the exhibit. What does the IP address 192.168.33.2 represent?

--> The host's primary domain name server.



38. Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the information that is given? (Choose two.)


--> The destination port indicates that an HTTP session has been initiated.

--> The data listed is associated with the transport layer.


39. Which of the following are the address ranges of the private IP addresses? (Choose three.)

--> 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255

--> 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255

--> 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255



40. Which two functions of the OSI model occur at layer two? (Choose two.)


--> physical addressing

--> media access control



41. Which range of port numbers are reserved for services that are commonly used by applications that run on servers?

--> 0 to 1023


42. As network administrator, what is the subnet mask that allows 510 hosts given the IP address 172.30.0.0?


--> 255.255.254.0



43. Refer to the exhibit. The tracert command is initiated from PC1 to the destination PC4. Which device will send a response to the initial packet from PC1?


--> Athens


44. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is transmitting data to host B. What addresses will host A use to for the destination IP and MAC addresses in this communication?


--> Destination MAC: EEEE:EEEE:EEEE Destination IP: 172.22.0.75


45. Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology best describes the exhibited network?


--> star


46. Examine the graphic with current configurations. Host A in the Clerical offices failed and was replaced. Although a ping to 127.0.0.1 was successful, the replacement computer can not access the company network. What is the likely cause of the problem?


--> subnet mask incorrectly entered



47. Refer to the exhibit. With the router running NAT, what IP addresses can be applied to the computer to allow access to the Internet? (Choose three.)


--> 192.168.18.49

--> 192.168.18.52

-->192.168.18.59



48. Refer to the exhibit. What three statements are true about the IP configuration that is shown? (Choose three.)



--> The address that is assigned to the computer represents private addressing.

--> The computer is unable to communicate outside of the local network.

--> The prefix of the computer address is /27.



49. Refer to the exhibit. Host A attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured with the source MAC address 0050.7320.D632 and the destination MAC address 0030.8517.44C4. The packet inside the captured frame has an IP source address 192.168.7.5, and the destination IP address is 192.168.219.24. At which point in the network was this packet captured?

--> leaving Dallas


50. Which of the following OSI layers offers reliable, connection-oriented data communication services?


--> transport

CCNA 3 Final latest (90%)

http://ccna-keys.blogspot.com Tke Assessment - ESwitching Final Exam - CCNA Exploration: LAN Switching and Wireless (Version 4.0)

1	Refer to the exhibit. The configuration steps that are listed in the exhibit have been entered in switch S1 via the console. Subsequent attempts to telnet to the switch are not successful. What is causing the problem? The switch must be configured with SSH version 1. The transport input command must specify Telnet access. The RSA keys must be returned to zero before SSH will permit Telnet access. The ip domain-name command must also be entered in line configuration mode for the vty lines.
2	Refer to the exhibit. How is port Gi1/1 on SWT-A functioning in the spanning-tree topology? It is sending and receiving data frames. It is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames. It is participating in the election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives. It is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.

3	Which parameter is a specific frequency at which a wireless access point will operate? BSS WEP SSID ad hoc channel
4	What will be the effect of the command S1# copy system:running-config tftp://172.16.2.155/tokyo-config? The IOS will be copied to the TFTP server. The configuration file named tokyo-config will overwrite the startup configuration file on S1. The running configuration file on S1 will be saved via TFTP to a file named tokyo-config. The contents of NVRAM on S1 will become the startup configuration file on the tokyo switch.

5	What identifier in the BPDU creates a unique BID for a switch? IP address MAC address bridge priority VLAN ID port priority
6	Refer to the exhibit. A wireless infrastructure has been established in a company building as shown. The design goal was to allow roaming between the three APs for handheld devices. However, the devices lose connectivity when the users roam. How can this problem be fixed? Assign different SSIDs to each AP. Reconfigure all APs to the same channel. Use the same BSSID address for each AP. Reposition the APs so that each area of signal strength overlaps the neighbor by at least 10-15%.

7	Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to configure Switch1 to allow SSH connections and prohibit Telnet connections. How should the network administrator change the displayed configuration to satisfy the requirement? Use SSH version 1. Reconfigure the RSA key. Configure SSH on a different line. Modify the transport input command.
8	How does Spanning Tree Protocol aid network architecture? allows for redundant links by eliminating loops provides greater scalability by eliminating collisions reduces switch processor load by reducing broadcast traffic on trunk links reduces administrative overhead by sharing VLAN databases between switches across the network

9	Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 3. Which IP address should be assigned to this new host? 192.168.1.22 /28 192.168.1.31 /28 192.168.1.32 /28 192.168.1.52 /28 192.168.1.63 /28
10	In setting up a wireless infrastructure network, which device is used to associate a client computer to the network? an Ethernet switch a wireless access point another wireless computer a hard-wired computer on the network

11	Which statement about STP network diameter is correct? STP diameters are restricted by convergence times. Layer 2 root elections should be optimized by adjusting BPDU timers to match network diameter. Using lower bandwidth connections between switches will allow STP to have a larger network diameter. Portfast can be used to increase the allowable switched network diameter because it disables the forward delay and maximum age timers.
12	Refer to the exhibit. Hosts that are connected to switch SW1 are not able to communicate with hosts in the same VLAN that are connected to switch SW2. What should be done to fix the problem? Introduce a Layer 3 device in the topology. Configure both switches in VTP transparent mode to allow them to share VLAN information. Reconfigure the fa0/1 interface on switch SW1 with a static trunk configuration. Apply IP addresses that are in the same subnet to FastEthernet 0/1 on SW1 and FastEthernet 0/2 on SW2.

13	Refer to the exhibit. What would happen if the network administrator moved the network cable of Host A from interface Fa0/1 to Fa0/3 on switch SW1? Host A remains a member of VLAN 10, because the router is routing traffic between VLANs. Host A is no longer a member of VLAN 10, because port Fa0/3 has been manually assigned to VLAN 30. Host A remains a member of VLAN 10, because the switch provides dynamic VLAN assignment for the port. Host A maintains connectivity to all members of VLAN 10, because it is connected to the same physical network. Host A is no longer a member of VLAN 10, but because port Fa0/3 was unused, it is now a member of VLAN 1.
14	Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same time. How do the hosts respond on the network? (Choose two.) After the end of the jam signal, a backoff algorithm is invoked. Hosts 1 and 4 are operating full duplex so no collision will exist. The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision. Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media. If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the line is idle before transmitting.

15	What are two requirements for configuring inter-VLAN routing using the router-on-a-stick model? (Choose two.) Each subinterface should be configured with its own IP address, subnet mask, and unique VLAN assignment. The physical interface of the router must be connected to a trunk link on the adjacent switch. The number of physical interfaces on the router should match the number of VLANs. Different static VLANs should be assigned to different interfaces of the router. The router should be configured as the VTP server.

16	Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is properly configured for router on a stick inter-VLAN routing, but PC1 is unable to ping PC2. What needs to be done to resolve the problem? Rename VLAN1. Connect one more port of S1 to R1. Configure the Fa0/1 port of S1 as a trunk port. Move the Fa0/0 interface of R1 to another VLAN.
17	Refer to the exhibit. If switch SW1 is configured with the four VLANs as shown in the exhibit, how many physical interfaces are needed on router R1 to configure inter-VLAN routing using subinterfaces? zero one two four

18	Refer to the exhibit. Router RA receives a packet with a source address of 192.168.1.35 and a destination address of 192.168.1.85. What will the router do with this packet? The router will drop the packet. The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1. The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2. The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3. The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 and interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
19	Refer to the exhibit. What does the term DYNAMIC indicate in the output that is shown? This entry can only be removed from the MAC address table by a network administrator. When forwarding a frame to the device with address 0060.5c5b.cd23, the switch does not have to perform a lookup to determine the final destination port. Only the device with MAC address 0060.5c5b.cd23 will be allowed to connect to port Fa0/18. The switch learned this MAC address from the source address in a frame received on Fa0/18.

20	Which parameter is associated with wireless authentication? shared key SSID ad hoc channel
21	Refer to the exhibit. Hosts B and C attempt to transmit a frame at the same time, but a collision occurs. Which hosts will receive the collision jamming signal? all hosts that are shown only hosts B and C only hosts A, B, and C only hosts A, B, C, and D only hosts A, D, E, and F only hosts D, E, and F

22	What is an efficient and cost effective way to minimize the frequency and effects of broadcast storms on an Ethernet LAN? Connect each PC directly to a router port. Use access control lists to filter broadcasts from the network. Divide the computers into separate VLANs on the existing switches. Divide the computers into separate workgroups using different physical switches.
23	Refer to the exhibit. The switches in the exhibit have VTP pruning enabled. Which VLAN(s) will be allowed on the trunk to SW2 by SW4? VLAN 20 only VLAN 10 and VLAN 30 VLAN 10, VLAN 20, and VLAN 30 VLAN 1, VLAN 20 and VLANs 1002 through 1005

24	What is the correct order in which the STP components are chosen? designated ports, nondesignated ports, root bridge, root ports nondesignated ports, designated ports, root ports, root bridge root bridge, root ports, designated ports, nondesignated ports root ports, root bridge, nondesignated ports, designated ports
25	Refer to the exhibit. Hosts PC_A and PC_B send traffic simultaneously, and the frames from the transmitting stations collide. What is the last device to receive the collision? hub HB1 switch SW1 router R1 switch SW2 router R2 switch SW4

26	Refer to the exhibit. What three statements describe why Host1 and Host2 are unable to communicate? (Choose three.) The switch ports are on different VLANs. The switch IP address is on the wrong subnet. The hosts are configured on different logical networks. A router is required to forward traffic between Host1 and Host2. The VLAN port assignments must be contiguous for each VLAN. The host default gateway addresses must be on the same logical network.
27	Which statement is correct about STP architecture? Spanning Tree Protocol will guarantee a loop free Layer 2 topology. Spanning Tree Protocol guarantees the shortest path to destination networks. The switch with the highest priority will be assigned the lowest BID in the root election. The first step in the spanning-tree election process is to determine the root port. To select designated ports, the spanning-tree algorithm must determine the longest contiguous path from the root bridge.

28	While configuring a new switch, a network administrator configures the switch as an HTTP server. What benefits does this configuration provide? This allows the switch to host web pages for the network. This allows remote VPN connections to the switch over the Internet. This is required if a web server or web farm is attached to the switch. This allows web-based configuration tools to be used with the switch.
29	What are two benefits of the IEEE 802.11n standard over the IEEE 802.11G? (Choose two.) requires less equipment provides improved range permits increased data rates has a single-input and a single-output needs no hardware upgrade for compatibility

30

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to allow both SSH and Telnet connections to Switch1. However, the SSH connections fail. What is the most likely cause of this problem? The RSA key has been removed. SSH has been configured on the wrong line. The transport input command is applied incorrectly. The domain name has been configured in the wrong configuration mode.

31	Refer to the exhibit. A new switch, SW3, has been added to the network. The network administrator determines that VLAN information is not propagating to SW3. Which command will remedy the problem? SW1(config)# vtp version 1 SW2(config)# vtp mode client SW3(config)# vtp domain Cisco1 SW3(config)# vtp mode transparent
32	Which CLI mode allows users to access all device commands, such as those used for configuration, management, and troubleshooting? user EXEC mode privileged EXEC mode global configuration mode interface configuration mode

33	Refer to the exhibit. Users A and B are reporting intermittent connectivity problems. Pre-installation surveys showed strong signal strength from the AP locations to the client locations. Outside electrical interference has been eliminated. What will fix the problem? Relocate the APs closer to each other. Increase the distance between the clients. Change the channel on AP-B to 6 or 11. Place AP-A and AP-B on the same wireless channel.
34	A switch that is using port-based memory buffering receives two incoming frames on the same port. The destination port for the first frame that is received is busy. How will the switch handle the second frame that it received? The second frame will have to wait to be delivered even if its destination port is available. The second frame will be delivered to the memory buffer for its destination port. The second frame will be placed in a common memory buffer to await delivery. The second frame will be dropped.

35	Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has just added VLAN 50 to Switch1 and Switch2. Hosts A, B, C, and D are correctly configured with IP addresses in the subnet range for VLAN 50. Host A can communicate with host B, but cannot communicate with host C or host D. What is the cause of this problem? There is a native VLAN mismatch. The Fa0/11 interface of Switch1 is not configured as a trunk. The link between Switch1 and Switch2 is up but not trunked. VLAN 50 is not allowed on the trunk link between Switch1 and Switch2.
36	Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 was tested in a lab environment and then inserted into a production network without reloading its configuration. After the trunk link between SW1 and SW2 was brought up, all users lost connectivity to the network. What could be the source of the problem? All the VLANs were pruned from the trunk port between SW1 and SW2. SW1 and SW2 cannot be both set as VTP servers in the same VTP domain. VTP configuration revision number of SW2 was higher than the configuration revision number of SW1. The additional VLANs from SW2 created more VLANs than the VLAN database of SW1 could contain.

37	Company policy requires disabling the command history buffer on network devices. An administrator enters terminal no history size at the command prompt on a Cisco Catalyst switch and receives no error messages back, but the command history buffer is still available. What is the problem? The command contained a syntax error. The Cisco IOS version does not support disabling the command history buffer. The command history can only be disabled on a router, not a switch. The size parameter reset the default buffer size but did not disable access to the buffer.
38	Refer to the exhibit. Which two options correctly describe the router configuration that is shown? (Choose two.) Routing between the 192.168.1.0 and 192.168.3.0 networks will not succeed until a routing protocol is configured on the router. VLANs have not been appropriately configured on the router subinterfaces. The configuration is appropriate for a router-on-a-stick network design. Trunking has been appropriately configured on the router subinterfaces. An IP address should be applied to interface Fa0/1 for routing to occur.

39	Refer to the exhibit. After entering the commands in the exhibit, the administrator receives a "password required, but none set" message when attempting to connect to S1. What is the problem? The enable secret password was not set. S1 does not have login configured on the vty lines. S1 does not have a password configured for the vty lines. The crypto key is not properly configured to generate passwords. The VLAN1 interface has not be enabled with the no shutdown command.
40	Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has segmented the network into two VLANs and configured R1 and S1 as displayed. However, PC1 is unable to access PC2. What is the likely problem? No routing protocol is configured on R1. The Fa0/1 port of S1 is not a trunk port. The default gateway address is not set on S1. Only one physical link between S1 and R1 is configured for inter-VLAN routing.

41	Refer to the exhibit. The Layer 2 switching design that is shown has been implemented in a campus environment that is using Spanning Tree Protocol. All inter-switch links that are shown are trunks. Whenever an inter-switch link fails, the network takes nearly a minute to completely converge. How can the convergence time be reduced? Increase the capacity of the distribution and core trunk links to 10 Gb/s. Add a trunk link that directly connects D1 and D2. Use Layer 3 switching on the core switch. Implement Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol.
42	Refer to the exhibit. What are two reasons for the Fa0/24 port being placed in the blocking state? (Choose two.) This switch is not the root bridge. The Fa0/24 port is administratively down. STP has detected links that create a loop. There is a change in the VTP configuration. The Fa0/24 port is overloaded with too much traffic for its configured bandwidth.

43	Which three actions are performed during the boot sequence of a Cisco switch? (Choose three.) The boot loader uses the self-contained switch operating system to boot the switch. The boot loader retrieves diagnostics routines via TFTP. The boot loader performs POST. The boot loader is loaded from RAM. The boot loader initializes the flash file system that is used to boot the system. The boot loader loads the default operating system if the flash-based operating system is corrupt or missing.
44	Which combination is required to establish a connection to initially configure the Linksys WRT300N wireless access device? a computer with a console connection to the WRT300N a computer with a wireless connection to the WRT300N a computer with an AUX port connection to the WRT300N a computer configured in the same IP subnet as the WRT300N and a direct cable connection to it

45	Refer to the exhibit. RTB is configured for traditional inter-VLAN routing. RTB can ping computer A but cannot ping computer B. What is a possible cause of this failure? Port Fa0/11 is in the wrong VLAN. RTB does not have an active routing protocol. The IP address of computer B is in the wrong logical network. Router interface Fa0/1 has the wrong trunk encapsulation type configured.

46	In which mode is a VTP switch operating if it has been configured to only forward VTP advertisements? client root server transparent
47	Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 has been newly purchased and added to the network. What configuration should be applied to SW2 so that it participates in the same VTP domain as switch SW1, receives VLAN information from SW1, and synchronizes VLAN information? Disable VTP pruning on SW2. Configure SW2 in VTP transparent mode. Configure SW2 with the VTP domain password. Configure SW2 as a VTP server with a higher revision number.

48	Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of setting the security mode to WEP on the Linksys integrated router? WEP identifies the wireless LAN. WEP allows the access point to inform clients of its presence. WEP translates IP addresses into easy-to-remember domain names. WEP encrypts data between the wireless client and the access point. WEP ensures that only authenticated users are allowed access to the WLAN. WEP translates an internal address or group of addresses into an outside, public address.
49	Refer to the exhibit. What will allow a host on VLAN 40 on switch X to communicate with a host in VLAN 40 on switch Y? QoS routing trunking VPN

50	Refer to the exhibit. All switches are configured with the default bridge priority. Which port will act as a non-designated port if all links are operating at the same bandwidth? Fa0/1 interface of switch A Fa0/2 interface of switch A Fa0/1 interface of switch B Fa0/2 interface of switch B Fa0/1 interface of switch C Fa0/2 interface of switch C
51	What provides an authentication mechanism for 802.11-based wireless networks? DSSS OFDM SSID WPA

52

Refer to the exhibit. Computer D sends a broadcast message. Which devices will process the broadcast message? computer E computer D and computer E computer D, computer E, and Router1 computer B and computer E computer B, computer E, and Router1 computer C, computer D, and computer E computer C, computer D, computer E, and Router1 computer A, computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E, and Router1

CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 8 (100%)

www.ccna4u.net || www.ccna4u.info || www.ccna4u.org || www.9tut.info

1. Excessive broadcasts are generally a symptom of a problem at which layer?

data link

2. Refer to the exhibit. Users at Branch B are reporting trouble accessing a corporate website running on a server that is located at HQ. HQ and Branch A users can access the website. R3 is able to ping 10.10.10.1 successfully but not 10.10.10.2. The users at Branch B can access servers at Branch A. Which two statements are true aboutthe troubleshooting efforts? (Choose two.)

Frame Relay at R3 and R2 should be tested to narrow the scope of the problem.
An ACL entry error could cause the failure at Layer 4 in either R3 or R2.


3. What is one example of a physical layer problem?

incorrect clock rate

4. Which two components should be taken into consideration when establishing a network baseline? (Choose two.)

information about the network design
expected performance under normal operating conditions

5. Refer to the exhibit. Which two steps should be taken during the process of creating network documentation? (Choose two.)

Record the information about the devices discovered in the entire network, including the remote locations.
Transfer any information about the devices from the network configuration table that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.

6. A technician has been asked to troubleshoot an existing switched network but is unable to locate documentation for the VLAN configuration. Which troubleshooting tool allows the technician to map and discover VLAN and port assignments?

network analyzer

7. What combination of IP address and wildcard mask should be used to specify only the last 8 addresses in the subnet 192.168.3.32/28?

192.168.3.40 0.0.0.7

8. Information about which OSI layers of connected Cisco devices can be verified with the show cdp neighbors command?

Layer 1, Layer 2, and Layer 3

9. A technician has been asked to make several changes to the configuration and topology of a network and then determine the outcome of the changes. What tool can be used to determine the overall effect caused by the changes?

baselining tool

10. Which two pieces of information are typically found on a logical network diagram? (Choose two.)

interface identifiers
DLCI for virtual circuits

11. Refer to the exhibit. Which three pieces of information can be determined by analyzing the output shown? (Choose three.)

A carrier detect signal is present.
Keepalives are being received successfully.
The LCP negotiation phase is complete.

12. Clients across the company are reporting poor performance across all corporate applications running in the data center. Internet access and applications running across the corporate WAN are performing normally. The network administrator observes a continual broadcast of random meaningless traffic (jabber) on the application server LAN in the data center on a protocol analyzer. How should the administrator start troubleshooting?

The jabber in the data center indicates a local physical layer problem. Use the protocol analyzer to determine the source of the jabber, and then check for a recent NIC driver update or bad cabling.

13. When gathering symptoms for troubleshooting a network problem, which step could result in getting an external administrator involved in the process?

determining ownership

14. A network administrator has received complaints that users on a local LAN can retrieve e-mail from a remote e-mail server but are unable to open web pages on the same server. Services at which two layers of the OSI model should be investigated during the troubleshooting process? (Choose two.)

transport layer
application layer

15. Users are complaining of very long wait times to access resources on the network. The show interface command reveals collision counts far above the network baseline. At which OSI layer should the administrator begin troubleshooting?

physical

16. Which troubleshooting approach is suggested for dealing with a complex problem that is suspected of being caused by faulty network cabling?

bottom up

17. Which two statements are true concerning logical networking models? (Choose two.)

The top layer of the TCP/IP model combines the functions of the top three OSI layers.
The TCP/IP network access layer corresponds to the OSI physical and data link layers.

18. Which three approaches should be used when attempting to gather data from users for troubleshooting? (Choose three.)

Obtain information by asking simple pertinent questions.
Determine if the problem is related to time or a specific event.
Determine if the user can re-create the problem or events leading to the problem.

19. Refer to the exhibit. Users on the Internal LAN are unable to connect to the www server. The network administrator pings the server and verifies that NAT is functioning correctly. Which OSI layer should the administrator begin to troubleshoot next?

application

20. Encapsulation errors from mismatched WAN protocols on a serial link between two routers indicate a problem at which OSI layer?

data link

CCNA v4 - E3 - Module 6 (100%)

www.ccna4u.net || www.ccna4u.info || www.ccna4u.org || www.9tut.info

1. Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be drawn from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)

Both of the directly connected routes that are shown will share the same physical interface of the router.
Inter-VLAN routing between hosts on the 172.17.10.0/24 and 172.17.30.0/24 networks is successful on this network.

2. A router has two FastEthernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can this be accomplished using the fewest number of physical interfaces without unnecessarily decreasing network performance?

Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.


3. What is important to consider while configuring the subinterfaces of a router when implementing inter-VLAN routing?

The IP address of each subinterface must be the default gateway address for each VLAN subnet.

4. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 has attempted to ping PC2 but has been unsuccessful. What could account for this failure?

The encapsulation command on the R1 F0/0.3 interface is incorrect.

5. What distinguishes traditional routing from router-on-a-stick?

Traditional routing uses one port per logical network. Router-on-a-stick uses subinterfaces to connect multiple logical networks to a single router port.

6. In which situation could individual router physical interfaces be used for InterVLAN routing, instead of a router-on-a-stick configuration?

a network with a limited number of VLANs

7. Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 is correctly configured for the VLANs that are displayed in the graphic. The configuration that is shown was applied to RTA to allow for interVLAN connectivity between hosts attached to Switch1. After testing the network, the administrator logged the following report:

Hosts within each VLAN can communicate with each other.
Hosts in VLAN5 and VLAN33 are able to communicate with each other.
Hosts connected to Fa0/1 through Fa0/5 do not have connectivity to host in other VLANs.

Why are hosts connected to Fa0/1 through Fa0/5 unable to communicate with hosts in different VLANs?

The router was not configured to forward traffic for VLAN2.

8. Refer to the exhibit. Port Fa0/0 on router R1 is connected to port Fa0/1 on switch S1. After the commands shown are entered on both devices, the network administrator determines that the devices on VLAN 2 are unable to ping the devices on VLAN 1. What is the likely problem?

R1 is configured for router-on-a-stick, but S1 is not configured for trunking.

9. Which statement is true about ARP when inter-VLAN routing is being used on the network?

When router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing is in use, the router returns the MAC address of the physical interface in response to ARP requests.

10. Which three elements must be used when configuring a router interface for VLAN trunking? (Choose three.)
one subinterface per VLAN
one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface
a compatible trunking protocol encapsulation for each subinterface

11. Which two statements are true about the interface fa0/0.10 command? (Choose two.)

The command is used in the configuration of router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing.
The command configures a subinterface.

12. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator correctly configures RTA to perform inter-VLAN routing. The administrator connects RTA to port 0/4 on SW2, but inter-VLAN routing does not work. What could be the possible cause of the problem with the SW2 configuration?

Port 0/4 is configured in access mode.

13. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements describe the network design shown in the exhibit? (Choose three.)

This design will not scale easily.
This design uses more switch and router ports than are necessary.
If the physical interfaces between the switch and router are operational, the devices on the different VLANs can communicate through the router.

14. Refer to the exhibit. All devices are configured as shown in the exhibit. PC2 can successfully ping the F0/0 interface on R1. PC2 cannot ping PC1. What might be the reason for this failure?

S1 interface F0/8 is in the wrong VLAN.

15. Devices on the network are connected to a 24-port Layer 2 switch that is configured with VLANs. Switch ports 0/2 to 0/4 are assigned to VLAN 10. Ports 0/5 to 0/8 are assigned to VLAN 20, and ports 0/9 to 0/12 are assigned to VLAN 30. All other ports are assigned to the default VLAN. Which solution allows all VLANs to communicate between each other while minimizing the number of ports necessary to connect the VLANs?

Add a router to the topology and configure one FastEthernet interface on the router with multiple subinterfaces for VLANs 1, 10, 20, and 30.

16. What are the steps which must be completed in order to enable inter-VLAN routing using router-on-a-stick?

Create the VLANs on the switch to include port membership assignment and configure subinterfaces on the router matching the VLANs.

17. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the operation of the subinterfaces? (Choose two.)
Incoming traffic that has a VLAN ID of 2 is processed by subinterface fa0/0.2.
Traffic inbound on this router is processed by different subinterfaces, depending on the VLAN from which the traffic originated.

18. Refer to the exhibit. The commands for a router to connect to a trunked uplink are shown in the exhibit. A packet is received from IP address 192.168.1.54. The packet destination address is 192.168.1.120. What will the router do with this packet?

The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 tagged for VLAN 60.

19. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is routing between networks 192.168.10.0/28 and 192.168.30.0/28. PC1 can ping R1 interface F0/1, but cannot ping PC3. What is causing this failure?

The PC3 network address configuration is incorrect.

20. What two statements are true regarding the use of subinterfaces for inter-VLAN routing? (Choose two.)

fewer router ports required than in traditional inter-VLAN routing
less complex physical connection than in traditional inter-VLAN routing